Have there been any significant developments in the “Norman Controversy” on the origin of the Kievan Rus?

Have there been any significant developments in the “Norman Controversy” on the origin of the Kievan Rus?


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I've been reading Riasanovsky's "A History of Russia" (2nd edition, so fairly out of date), and it comes out strongly against the Norman theory. Today though, most sources seem to lean heavily towards favoring it, and given the evidence it seems to make more sense in general.

What is our current understanding of the origin of the Kievan Rus?



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